The
D.C. police department requires police recruits to take Test 21 – recruits must
receive a grade of at least 40 on the test to be on the force.
The test was attacked as a racial classification under the Equal Protection Clause.
How is this test a racial classification
under equal protection?
When
a statute or governmental policy creates a racial classification “on its
face,” the equal protection issue is easy to frame.
Suppose, for example, the D.C. statutes provided that
only whites could be police officers. Or
suppose the department established 80% as the passing score for blacks and 70%
as the passing score for whites?
The racial classification is clear “on the face”
of the statute, and we proceed to apply strict scrutiny. Since there does not appear to be any
compelling reason for this classification, we strike it down.
A
second approach is to argue that a law that is neutral on its face is being
unevenly applied on the basis of race. See
the Yick Wo case.
In Yick Wo you have a facially
neutral health and safety regulation that prohibits the operation of
laundries in wooden buildings. Looks
like an easy, minimal scrutiny, economic regulation. Fire Hazard.
But the evidence at trial showed the following: "It was alleged in the petition, that "your petitioner and more than
one hundred and fifty of his countrymen have been arrested upon the
charge
of carrying on business without having such special consent, while
those
who are not subjects of China, and who are conducting eighty odd
laundries
under similar conditions, are left unmolested and free to enjoy the
enhanced
trade and profits arising from this hurtful and unfair discrimination.
The business of your petitioner, and of those of his countrymen
similarly
situated, is greatly impaired, and in many cases practically ruined by
this system of oppression to one kind of men and favoritism to all
others...."
In other words, the laws restrictions were only being enforced against laundries operated by Chinese launderers.
Held:
Denial of equal protection. The discriminatory
application of the law constituted a racial classification.
Basically,
the court inferred racially discriminatory intent from the overwhelming
evidence of unequal application (the evidence was so strong in Yick Wo that
it's hard to imagine the discrimination was unintentional).
How
does Yick Wo cut in our analysis of the D.C. police exam? Was the exam being unequally applied? Did both races take the same exam (Exam 21), and did
each have to achieve the same passing score?
Yes.
It is hard to see any argument concerning unequal application.
If the exam requirement is not
discriminatory on its face and is administered evenhandedly, what is the
argument that it is discriminatory?
Basically, the only argument is the
disparate impact – unequal results: The record showed that "a far greater proportion of blacks--four times as many--failed the test than did whites."
Are unequal results of an evenhanded
merit policy evidence of discriminatory intent?
Should disparate impact trigger strict scrutiny? Or should the
test be reviewed under the rational basis test and upheld so long as it
is rationally related to a legitimate state interest in requiring that
police officers have a reasonable ability "to communicate orally and in
writing."
What
do you think? Should all laws and policies that fail to produce equal
results on the basis of race be struck down under the compelling
interest test?
Now let's talk about Arlington Heights.