Suppose Congress passes and the President signs into law the following Federal Marriage Statute:
"Marriage in the United States shall consist only of the union of a man and a woman. Neither the constitution of any State, nor any state or federal law, shall be construed or enacted to require that marital status or the legal incidents thereof be conferred upon unmarried couples or groups."
Under this law, same-sex "marriages" recognized in the state of Massachusetts or any other state would not be permitted. Is this law within the power of Congress under the Commerce Clause on the theory that marriage is an institution that, as a class, substantially affects interstate commerce?
The web log for Prof. Duncan's Constitutional Law Classes at Nebraska Law-- "[U]nder our Constitution there can be no such thing as either a creditor or a debtor race. That concept is alien to the Constitution's focus upon the individual. In the eyes of government, we are just one race here. It is American. " -----Justice Antonin Scalia If you allow the government to take your liberty during times of crisis, it will create a crisis whenever it wishes to take your liberty.
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I. Tinker A student's right to speak (even on controversial subjects such as war) in the cafeteria, the playing field, or "on the...
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Monday August 28 : Handout on Moore v Harper (PDF has been emailed to you); Originalism vs. the "Living Constitution": Strau...
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Jack Phillips of Masterpiece Cakeshop (art by Joshua Duncan) "We may not shelter in place when the C...
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